高考英语辽宁卷真题试卷及答案

2024高考英语辽宁卷真题试卷及答案

　　在各个领域，我们都离不开试卷，在各领域中，只要有考核要求，就会有试卷，试卷是命题者按照一定的考核目的编写出来的。还在为找参考试卷而苦恼吗？下面是小编整理的2024高考英语辽宁卷真题试卷及答案，仅供参考，希望能够帮助到大家。

　　高考英语辽宁卷真题试卷及答案1

　　本试卷共10页，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。

　　注意事项：

　　1.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型（A）填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

　　2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。

　　3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

　　4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

　　第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）

　　第一节（共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）

　　阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

　　A

　　Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

　　Grading Scale

　　90-100，A；80-89，B；70-79，C；60-69，D；Below 60，E.

　　Essays（60%）

　　Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course：

　　Essay 1 = 10%；Essay 2= 15%；Essay 3= 15%；Essay 4= 20%.

　　Group Assignments（30%）

　　Students will work in groups to complete four assignments（作业）during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard，our online learning and course management system.

　　Daily Worth/In-Class Writing and Tests/Group Work/Homework（10%）

　　Class activities will vary from day to day，but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion，so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally，from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home，both of which will be graded.

　　Late Work

　　An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date，it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.

　　21. Where is this text probably taken from？

　　A. A textbook.

　　B. An exam paper.

　　C. A course plan.

　　D. An academic article.

　　22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of？

　　A. Two.

　　B. Three.

　　C. Four.

　　D. Five.

　　23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date？

　　A. You will receive a zero.

　　B. You will lose a letter grade.

　　C. You will be given a test.

　　D. You will have to rewrite it.

　　B

　　Like most of us，I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste.

　　The arugula（芝麻菜）was to make a nice green salad，rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed，the arugula went bad. Even worse，I had unthinkingly bought way too much；I could have made six salads with what I threw out. In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry，“food waste goes against the moral grain，” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away

　　— from “ugly”（but quiet eatable）vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

　　Producing food that no one eats wastes the water，fuel，and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact，Royte writes，“if food waste were a country，it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.” If that’s hard to understand，let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time — but for him，it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their last days.

　　Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington，D.C.，which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807，500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished（有瑕疵的）produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries？Volunteers will wash，cut，and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road. Such methods seem obvious，yet so often we just don’t think.

　　“Everyone can play a part in reducing waste，whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat，” Curtin says.

　　24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story？

　　A. We pay little attention to food waste.

　　B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

　　C. We waste more vegetables than meat.

　　D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

　　25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text？

　　A. Moral decline.

　　B. Environmental harm.

　　C. Energy shortage.

　　D. Worldwide starvation.

　　26. What does

　　Curtin’s company do？

　　A. It produces kitchen equipment.

　　B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

　　C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.

　　D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

　　27. What does

　　Curtin suggest people do？

　　A. Buy only what is needed.

　　B. Reduce food consumption.

　　C. Go shopping once a week.

　　D. Eat in restaurants less often.

　　C

　　The elderly residents（居民）in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

　　The project was dreamed up by a local charity（慈善组织）to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people＇s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia，a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.

　　Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said：＂I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.＂

　　＂I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they＇ve gone to bed.＂

　　＂It＇s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I＇m enjoying the creative activities，and it feels great to have done something useful.＂

　　There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East，and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.

　　Wendy Wilson，extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street，one of the first to embark on the project，said：＂Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.＂

　　Lynn Lewis，director of Notting Hill Pathways，said：＂We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.＂

　　28. What is the purpose of the project？

　　A. To ensure harmony in care homes.

　　B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

　　C. To raise money for medical research.

　　D. To promote the elderly people＇s welfare.

　　29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier？

　　A. She has learned new life skills.

　　B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

　　C. She has recovered her memory.

　　D. She has developed a strong personality.

　　30. What do the underlined words＂embark on＂mean in paragraph 7？

　　A. Improve.

　　B. Oppose.

　　C. Begin.

　　D. Evaluate.

　　31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs？

　　A. It is well received.

　　B. It needs to be more creative.

　　C. It is highly profitable.

　　D. It takes ages to see the results.

　　D

　　Human speech contains more than 2，000 different sounds，from the common＂m＂and＂a＂to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others？A ground-breaking，five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world＇s languages.

　　More than 30 years ago，the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals，such as＂f＂and＂y＂，were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich，Switzerland，has found how and why this trend arose.

　　They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned（对齐），making it hard to produce labiodentals，which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later，our jaws changed to an overbite structure（结构），making it easier to produce such sounds.

　　The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn＇t have to do as much work and so didn＇t grow to be so large.

　　Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age，with the use of＂f＂and＂v＂increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.

　　This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300，000 years ago.＂The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings，but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution，＂said Steven Moran，a member of the research team.

　　32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi＇s research focus on？

　　A. Its variety.

　　B. Its distribution.

　　C. Its quantity.

　　D. Its development.

　　33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals？

　　A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

　　B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

　　C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

　　D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

　　34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about？

　　A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

　　B. Potential application of the research findings.

　　C. A further explanation of the research methods.

　　D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

　　35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds？

　　A. It is key to effective communication.

　　B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

　　C. It is a complex and dynamic system.

　　D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

　　第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）

　　阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

　　Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was：“You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym，” while another read：“__36__” With a workout partner，you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle（微妙）competition.

　　So，how do you find a workout partner？

　　First of all，decide what you want from that person. __37__ Or do you just want to be physically fit，able to move with strength and flexibility？Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.

　　You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media，but it probably won’t result in a useful response. __38__ If you plan on working out in a gym，that person must belong to the same gym.

　　My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do，how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session，and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities，and provided her phone number. __39__

　　You and your partner will probably have different skills. __40__ Over time，both of you will benefit — your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core（核心）of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.

　　A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

　　B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

　　C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.

　　D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport？

　　E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice？

　　F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

　　G. Any notice for training partner should include such information.

　　第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）

　　第一节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）

　　阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

　　My husband，our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.

　　Some of our __41__ are funny，especially from the early years when our children were little. Once，we __42__ along Chalk Creek. I was __43__ that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek（小溪）. I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was __44__，and his crying let the whole campground know it. So __45__ tying him up，I just kept a close eye on him. It __46__ — he didn＇t end up in the creek. My three-year-old，however，did.

　　Another time，we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we __47__，but storms move in fast in the mountains，and this one quickly __48__ our peaceful morning trip. The __49__ picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to __50__ the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No __51__. We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there __52__，a fisherman pulled up，threw us a rope and towed（拖）us back. We were __53__.

　　Now，every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage，we are filled with a sense of __54__，wondering what camping fun and __55__ we will experience next.

　　41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries

　　42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled

　　43. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried

　　44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid

　　45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for

　　46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed

　　47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off

　　48. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded

　　49. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed

　　50. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix

　　51. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal

　　52. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly

　　53. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right

　　54. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement

　　55. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict

　　第二节（共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分）

　　阅读下面短文，在空自处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

　　The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park（GPNP）. ____56____（cover）an area about three times ____57____ size of Yellowstone National Park，the CPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that ____58____（be）previously unprotected，bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority ____59____（increase）effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.

　　After a three-year pilot period，the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP ____60____（design）to reflect the guiding principle of＂protecting the authenticity and integrity（完整性）of natural ecosystems，preserving biological diversity，protecting ecological buffer zones，____61____ leaving behind precious natural assets（资产）for future generations＂. The GPNP＇s main goal is to improve connectivity between separate ____62____（population）and homes of giant pandas，and ____63____（eventual）achieve a desired level of population in the wild.

　　Giant pandas also serve ____64____ an umbrella species（物种），bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species ____65____ live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.

　　第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）

　　第一节（满分15分）

　　假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：

　　1.节目介绍；

　　2.访谈的时间和话题。

　　注意：

　　1. 写作词数应为80左右；

　　2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

　　Dear Caroline，Yours sincerely，Li Hua

　　第二节（满分25分）

　　阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

　　It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route（路线）through thick evergreen forest.

　　I looked around and finally spotted David，who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn＇t with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.

　　What was wrong？He had worked so hard for this event！

　　I quickly searched the crowd for the school＇s coach and asked him what had happened.＂I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him，＂he explained uncomfortably.＂I gave him the choice to run or not，and let him decide.＂

　　I bit back my frustration（懊恼）. I knew the coach meant well-he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted，I turned to find him coming towards me，his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.

　　David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children，but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer -that＇s all. David had not missed a single practice，and although he always finished his run long after the other children，he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the David faced and was school，I was familiar with the challenges the challenges proud of his strong determination.

　　注意：

　　1.续写词数应为150左右；

　　2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

　　We sat down next to each other，but David wouldn＇t look at me.

　　I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.

　　【参考答案】

　　21--23 CBA

　　24--27 BBDA

　　28--31 DBCA

　　32--35 DCAC

　　36--40 CDBGF

　　41--45 CADCB 46--50 ADBAC 51--55 ADCDB

　　ring 58. were

　　59. to increase：60. is designed

　　lations

　　tually 65. that

　　高考英语辽宁卷真题试卷及答案2

　　本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。第Ⅰ卷1至4页，第Ⅱ卷第5至6页。考试用时100分钟，试卷满分120分。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

　　第Ⅰ卷

　　注意事项：

　　1、答题前，考生在答题卡上密封线内务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将自己的考场、姓名、班级和座位号填写清楚。

　　2、每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。

　　第一部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

　　第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）

　　阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

　　A

　　It was a physical class. But it was nothing like previous ones — the class was “attended” by over 60 million students across China, and the teacher was not even on the planet: she was 340 kilometers above the earth.

　　“Hello, everyone. I’m Wang Yaping. I’ll host your lecture today.” Smiling to the camera, Wang, China’s second female astronaut, started her video class on June 20 on board the Tiangong-1 space station.

　　To show how Newton’s Laws work in space, Wang and her fellow astronauts used simple items like balls and spinning tops. The highlight of the lecture was when Wang made a film of water using a metal ring, something that only happens in zero gravity, where the surface tension(张力) of water is much higher than it is on the earth. She then took it a step further by pouring more water onto the film and turning it into a water ball, leaving the audience amazed by what they saw.

　　The 40-minute lesson seemed to have passed too quickly for students to see enough of those magical experiments. But sending stuff into space is really expensive. According to The Beijing Times, every kilogram launched into space cost 20,000 dollars. The experimental items taken this time were all strictly selected and weighed about 2.9 kilograms in total. This adds up to quite a large price tag.

　　The organizers of the event also had to consider the time of day: the communication signal between the earth and Tiangong-1 was best during that specific 40 minutes, when the spacecraft was flying within the coverage of all of the ground-based testing stations.

　　1. Why is the class different from a common one?

　　A. Because it took 40 minutes.

　　B. Because over 60 million students across the world attended it.

　　C. Because the teacher was on the planet.

　　D. Because the lecturer was in space.

　　2. One of the experiments shows .

　　A. object motion under weight conditions B. laws of physics under weightless conditions

　　C. laws of physics under weight conditions D. how Newton’s Laws work on the earth

　　3. Which phrase can best replace the underlined words in the passage?

　　A. took a photo of water. B. recorded moving pictures of water.

　　C. made a thin layer of water. D. all the above.

　　4. Which of the following statements can be the best title of the passage?

　　A. Teaching from the Sky. B. Teaching on Physics.

　　C. Teaching Experiments. D. Teaching by an Astronaut.

　　B

　　Discover Artistic Talents across the Country

　　Redtory, Guangzhou

　　Redtory, established in 2009, is a spacious art district often referred to as Guangzhou’s 798. Made up of more than 30 old halls, mostly buildings of red brick, the place was originally built in 1956 as Chinese largest can factory. Some of the rusty machines from the old factory have been kept as art equipment, giving the zone an old charm.

　　Where: No. 128 Yuancun Siheng Road, Tianhe District, Guangzhou

　　Opening hours: Mon-Sun 10:30 am-9 pm

　　Tank Loft, Chongqing

　　This 12,000-square-meter art center was established on the site of a used military tank warehouse(仓库). It is the largest contemporary art base in western China, featuring modern exhibition, galleries, design studios and art bookstores. The art zone is located on the campus of the Sichuan Fine Arts Institute and was created by the school in the early 2000s.

　　Where: No. 108 Huangjueping Center Street, Jiulongpo District, Chongqing

　　Opening hours: 9 am-5 pm(closed Mondays)

　　M50, Shanghai

　　M50, also known as 50 Moganshan Road, is the center of Shanghai’s contemporary art scene, with more than 100 artists whose studios are open to the public. This dist rict, on the bank of Suzhou Creek, was previously a textile factory until it seized production in 1999. Xue Song, a Shanghai artist, was the first to establish a studio there in 2002.

　　Where: No. 50 Moganshan Road, Pudong District, Shanghai

　　Opening hours: 10 am-5 pm(closed Mondays)

　　798 Art Zone, Beijing

　　Attracted by ordered designing, convenient traffic and unique style of Bauhaus architecture, art organizations and artists have crowded in the vacant plants and transformed them since 2001, gradually forming a district gathered galleries, art studios, cultural companies, fashion shops etc. As the earliest area where the organizations and artists moved in located in the original area of 798 factory, this place was named as Beijing 798 Art Zone.

　　Where: No. 4 Jiuxianqiao Road, Chaoyang District, Beijing

　　Opening hours: 10 am-6 pm

　　5. If you are going to visit an art zone at 7pm, which one can you g o to?

　　A. Redtory, Guangzhou. B. Tank Loft, Chongqing.

　　C. M50, Shanghai. D. 798 Art Zone, Beijing.

　　6. Tank Loft, Chongqing is quite different from the others in .

　　A. size B. site C. feature D. weather

　　7. Which of the following was built first?

　　A. Redtory, Guangzhou. B. Tank Loft, Chongqing.

　　C. M50, Shanghai. D. 798 Art Zone, Beijing.

　　C

　　Camilla Broomstick, a missing Camden –area woman, was reported found inside her damaged Chevrolet Malibu Sunday afternoon in a County near Camden New Jersey, at the bottom of an embankment(路堤) off a highway, according to authorities. Her car, turned upside down, was spotted by a passer-by who had stopped to view scenery and noticed something shining and what looked like a body, authorities said.

　　When emergency res ponders arrived, they found Broomstick alive inside her severely damaged car. The vehicle rested upside down after flying 120 feet off the highway and rolling an additional 200 feet into an aspen woods.

　　“The crash alone would have killed her,” New Jersey State Trooper Dean Enoch said. “Its surprising that she survived the crash at all, and then to be down there for that amount of days without food or water.”

　　Earlier Monday, the family released a statement at the hospital thanking emergency responders who rushed Broomstick to the hospital and to the man who found her and notified authorities.

　　“We sincerely appreciate all the thoughts, prayers and kind gestures from the community during such a hard time for our family,” the statement read. “While were hopeful of her prognosis(愈后), Camilla was seriously injured and with multiple internal and external injuries. Later this afternoon Camilla will be undergoing surgery here to amputate(截肢) both of her feet. Doctors were not able to save her feet due to the serious injuries. Camilla is in critical but stable condition at this time and has a very long road ahead.”

　　In the statement, family members mentioned reports that Br oomstick wrote a request for help on an umbrella she pushed out the car window. “We cannot comment on that right now because we have not seen the umbrella,” the statement said. Family members also asked that the public respect their privacy.

　　8. Who found the severely damaged car?

　　A. The authorities. B. A passer-by.

　　C. Emergency responders. D. Her families.

　　9. Where was the damaged car when it was found?

　　A. 200 feet from the high way. B. 120 feet from the high way.

　　C. 220 feet from the high way. D. 320 feet from the high way.

　　10. What can we know from the passage ?

　　A. Camilla Broomstick was lucky to survive.

　　B. Camilla Broomstick had a strong will.

　　C. Camilla Broomstick had a good body.

　　D. Camilla Broomstick was bad in driving.

　　11. What is implied in the last two paragraphs?

　　A. Broomstick’s family are grateful for the doctors.

　　B. Broomstick’s family are not sure about the umbrella.

　　C. Broomstick’s family are worried about her legs.

　　D. Broomstick’s family are not willing to be disturbed.

　　D

　　If you put a buzzard（秃鹰）in a pen(围栏) six to eight feet square and entirely open at the top, the bird, in spite of its ability to fly, will be a prisoner. The reason is that a buzzard always begins a flight from the ground with a run of ten to twelve feet. Without space to run, it will not even attempt to fly, but remain a prisoner for life in a small prison with no top.

　　The ordinary bat that flies around at night, a remarkably nimble creature in the air, cannot take off from a level place. If it is placed on the floor or flat ground, all it can do is to shuffle about helplessly and, no doubt, painfully, until it reaches some slight height from which it can throw itself into the air. Then, at once, it takes off like a flash.

　　A bumblebee (大黄蜂), if dropped into an open tumbler(平底玻璃杯), will be there until it dies, unless it is taken out. It never sees the means of escape at the top, but insists on trying to find some way out through the sides near the bottom. It will seek a way where none exists until it completely destroys itself.

　　In many ways, there are lots of people like the buzzard, the bat and the bumblebee. They are struggling about with all their problems and frustrations, not realizing that the answer is right there above them.

　　12. Why does a buzzard choose to stay in a pen?

　　A. Becaus e it is safe to live there.

　　B. Because it gets used to living there.

　　C. Because it cannot take off within an limited area.

　　D. Because it lost its ability to fly.

　　13. The underlined word in the second paragraph probably means “ .”

　　A. to run slowly B. to move slowly C. to pace slowly D. to fly slowly

　　14. A bumblebee will completely destroy itself for .

　　A. it does not look for a way out above B. it is dropped into an open cage

　　C. it does not try to find a way to escape D. it hurts itself while flying

　　15. In which way are many people similar to a buzzard, an ordinary bat and a bumblebee?

　　A. They are overcoming all their problems and frustrations.

　　B. They are all content with the things as they are.

　　C. They choose to give in to problems and frustrations.

　　D. They do not seek new ways to deal with difficulties.

　　第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

　　根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。

　　We spend so much time waiting to be loved, hoping love will find us, and looking for that special love．Unfortunately, that’s not usually how life works. To be loved, you should love and respect yourself as much as you do others. In order to love someone, you should love yourself．

　　●Stop comparing yourself to others．16 We all have different gifts．When you compare yourself to others for what they have, whether it is a car, a house, or a job, it makes you feel bad about yourself. Really be grateful about everything you have. Gratitude keeps your heart open to love．

　　●Practice receiving love. To truly love is to be able to receive it. When someone loves you, does some kind deeds to you, or says kind words, accept it．17 Know that you are worthy of love. It is important to accept a gift of love by others. You give yourself a chance to learn more about yourself that you are lovable．18

　　● 19 Write about your experiences, good and bad. When you write down good experiences, allow yourself to feel those feelings. When you remember bad experiences, allow yourself to feel self-compassion. Compassion is not self-pity, but rather willingness to accept ones own pain and regret．

　　●Stop trying to be perfect. Stop blaming yourself for being less than perfect．20

　　Just follow all the steps above and dont let anyones expectations of you put any pressure on you．

　　A. Keep a diary．

　　B. Appreciate yourself．

　　C. Do not feel sorry about it．

　　D. Always do your best, but not reaching perfection is NOT failure．

　　E. Allow yourself to feel the love that has come your way．

　　F. You give someone a joy of giving by loving you．

　　G. Everyone on the earth is unique．

　　第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

　　第一节完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

　　阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

　　Michael kept begging his parents to let him see his sister. “I want to 28 to her,” he said. If he didn’t see sister now, he might never see her 29 . She dressed him in an oversized suit and marched him into ICU, but the head nurse 30 him as a child and shouted. “Get the kid out of here now! No children are 31 .” The 32 mild-mannered lady glared into the head nurse’s face. “He is not leaving 33 he sings to his sister!” Karen dragged Michael to his sister’s bedside. He gazed at the tiny baby 34 the battle to live, and he began to sing. 35 the pure hearted voice of a 3-year-old, Michael sang:

　　“You are my sunshine, my only sunshine. You make me happy when skies are gray....”

　　Instantly the baby girl 36 . The pulse rate became calm and steady.

　　“You never know, dear, how much I love you. Please don’t take my 37 away.”

　　“The other night, dear, as I lay sleeping, I 38 I held you in my arms.....”

　　Michael’s little sister relaxed.

　　The medical staff just called it a miracle. Karen called it a miracle of God’s 39 !

　　Never give up on the people you love. Love is so 40 powerful.

　　21. A. boy B. girl C. baby D. relative

　　22. A. delight B. prepare C. play D. study

　　23. A. mother B. father C. parents D. sister

　　24. A. terrible B. well C. better D. worse

　　25. A. little B. some C. big D. much

　　26. A. toy B. chair C. room D. bed

　　27. A. attended B. planned C. held D. expected

　　28. A. sing B. dance C. talk D. smile

　　29. A. asleep B. afraid C. awake D. alive

　　30. A. promised B. recognized C. treated D. viewed

　　31. A. allowed B. ask C. acquire D. refused

　　32. A. seldom B. rarely C. usually D. constantly

　　33. A. until B. after C. if D. when

　　34. A. winning B. getting C. losing D. fighting

　　35. A. In B. On C. At D. With

　　36. A. cried B. laughed C. answered D. responded

　　37. A. sister B. sunshine C. happiness D. gift

　　38. A. dreamed B. saw C. hoped D. knew

　　39. A. song B. voice C. smile D. love

　　40. A. simply B. strangely C. unbelievably D. easily

　　第Ⅱ卷

　　注意：将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。

　　第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

　　第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

　　阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（不多于3单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。

　　What is the most popular communication tool today? 41 your answer is QQ or MSN, I must say youre a bit old fashioned. Today, a new form of communication “Wechat”，which 42 (own) a Chinese name Weixin, is becoming the most influential text and voicing tool all over the world.

　　What advantages do Wechat have? First, Wechat is 43 relative cheap way of communication; that is to say, it uses network traffic instead of telephone fare. Next, we can know 44 is going on at any time. And we can have 45 (easy) access to information available than other messaging tools.

　　What roles does it play 46 our daily life? According to the latest report, the registered users on Wechat platform has topped 200 million and expanded its business to overseas market. Can you imagine that a mobile phone ‘app’ is so 47 (appeal) that it reaches 200 million users within 8 months? Wechat itself has become the most popular mobile chat application in the world. A large 48 of people have become “Wechataholic”, which means they keep staring at the mobile phone all the time and can’t live without 49 .

　　However, while enjoying its great convenience, people should not ignore the danger of 50 (cheat), for information on Wechat is publicly known.

　　第三部分写作（共两节，满分35分）（注意：在试题卷上作答无效）

　　第一节短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）

　　假定英语课上老师要同学之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同学写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处，每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

　　增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

　　删除：把多余的词用斜线( )划掉。

　　修改：在错的词下面划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

　　注意：1.每处错误及其修改均限一词。

　　2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处）不计分。

　　Double 11 or November 11, named Singles’ Day in China, has become a shopping festival for shopping lovers, specially for women and students, most of which click their mouses wildly. I am a crazy shopper, too.

　　November 12 was memorable for me, for I had a unusual experience that day. I didn’t wake up until it was 9:30 am because I have stayed up shopping from Taobao the night before. I got dressed hurriedly, grasped my schoolbag and left with having breakfast. I rode to school as fast as I could, hoped it would be soon to reach the school. When I finally got to my school, I found that the door was locked. It was turned out that our students were off that day. I needn’t come to school. I couldn’t help bursting into laughters for my foolish behavior.

　　What a ridiculous day ! This experience will be unforgettable in my mind.

　　第二节书面表达（满分25分）（注意：在试题卷上作答无效）

　　你校文学社向高三学生征文，请你以“How to Realize my Dream to University”为主题写一篇短文。

　　内容包括：

　　1.理想的大学和专业；

　　2.目前的做法；

　　3.未来的打算。

　　注意：

　　1.词数100左右；

　　2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

　　__________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________

　　2015年红河州高中毕业生复习统一测试

　　英语参考答案

　　第Ⅰ卷

　　第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

　　第一节完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

　　21—25 CBDDA 26—30 CBADB

　　31—35 ACAC A 36—40 DBADC

　　第Ⅱ卷

　　第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

　　第二节语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

　　41. If 42.owns 43. a 44. what 45. easier

　　46. in 47. appealing 48. number 49. it 50.being cheated

　　第三部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

　　第一节短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）

　　1. specially- especially 2. which- whom 3. a- an 4. have- had或去掉hav e 5. with- without

　　6. hoped- hoping 7.去掉was 8. our- we 9. needn’t后加上have 10. laughters- laugher

　　第二节书面表达（满分25分）

　　Possible Version

　　I often imagine what university I will enter next year. To be honest, I do hope I can go to Beijing University to learn economics which I’ve dreamed of since I was a child.

　　As a matter of fact, I haven’t completely put into my heart into all subjects such as maths, physics. I often want to play games and don’t listen to my teachers carefully in class.

　　As a saying goes “No pains , no gains.” I do know if I really want to realize my dream to the university, I have to work hard at all subjects. From now on, I am determined to make full use of my time, attending my class attentively, reading wildly, completing all the homework and doing sports to keep healthy. I believe, only by working hard at all subjects can I make my dream come true.

　　【简析】

　　第一部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

　　第一节（共15小题；每小题两分，满分30分）

　　解析：

　　A篇

　　B篇

　　5-7 ABD

　　5、A.细节理解题，根据每段末尾的营业时间对比Redtory, Guangzhou的营业时间Mon-Sun 10:30 am-9 pm（上午10:30-下午9点）符合题意。

　　6、B．细节理解题，根据This 12,000-square-meter art. center was established on the site of a used military tank warehouse. Tank loft, Chongqing选址在军用仓库，其余三家选址在废弃工厂。可得出答案选C。

　　7、D.细节理解题，根据各自的建成时间对比可得出答案。

　　C篇

　　8-11 BDAD

　　8、B.根据第一自然段中句子Her car, turned upside down, was spotted by a passerby可知是一个过路人发现了肇事车辆，因此选B。

　　9、D.细节理解题，根据第二自然段中距离计算（120feet加上200feet）可得出答案为D, 320 feet。

　　10、A．推理判断题，阅读全文可推知车辆肇事多日后才被发现，车主能够生还，真是奇迹。

　　11、D．推理判断题，根据结尾句Family members also asked that the public respect their privacy.可推知车主家人希望别人尊重其隐私，不愿被打扰故选D。

　　D篇

　　12-15 CBAD

　　12、C.细节理解题，根据第一自然段第二句话The reason is that a buzzard always begins a flight from the ground with a run of ten to twelve feet.可知buzzard（秃鹰）要借助一段距离的助跑，才能飞起，空间狭小，无法起飞，故得出答案C。

　　13、B．猜测词义，根据文章上下文可知，蝙蝠不能从平地起飞，若被放到平地上，只能“挪动”，得出答案B。

　　14、A.细节理解题，根据第三自然段第二句话It never sees the means of escape at the top，说明bumblebee（黄蜂）不知道从上方逃走，可得出答案A。

　　15、D．推理归纳题，根据文章第四自然段的内容，可推知许多人和上述动物一样，不会采用新的方法解决问题，故答案为D。

　　第二节七选五16~20 GEFAD

　　16.G根据小标题“Stop comparing yourself to others”，可知本段是让你不要与人相比。再根据其后的句子“We all have different gifts”“我们各人都有自己特有的天份”，说明自己是独一无二的。

　　17. E根据前面的句子“When someone loves you, does some kind deeds to you, or says kind words, accept it”，“当有人爱你，为你做一些好事或说些好话时，请接受”，可知下文是“让你感觉到爱已经离你不远了”。

　　18.F根据小标题“Practice receiving love”可知本段落的主旨是要你“学会接受爱”。又根据前面这个句子“You give yourself a chance to learn more about yourself that you are lovable”．“让你给自己一个了解自己有多讨人喜欢的机会”可知，“你应该给爱你的人以表达的机会和快乐”。F最符合语境。

　　19.A根据后面的两个句子“Write about your experiences, good and bad．When you write down good experiences, ”可知本段落都是与写有关的话题。A选项最符合做小标题。

　　20.D根据前面的句子“Stop blaming yourself for being less than perfect”“让你不要责怪自己不够完美”可知D最符合上下文语境，即告诉你不完美不是失败。

　　第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

　　第一节完形填空：

　　解析：文章讲述了主题为爱是如此难以相信的强大的一个感人故事。

　　21. C考查名词。结合下文They found out that the new baby was going to be a girl,故选C项。

　　22. B考查动词。结合下文可知是prepare for“为…作准备”,故选B项。

　　23. D考查名词。结合上文a girl,故选D项。

　　24. D考查形容词的比较级。结合下文Be prepared for the worst,故选D项。

　　25. A考查形容词。little表“几乎没有”，故选A项。

　　26. C考查名词。结合上下文应该是提前准备了一个房间，故选C项。

　　27. B考查动词。结合上下文应该是:现在他们得准备葬礼了。故选B项。

　　28. A考查动词。结合上下文可知是“唱给她听”，故选A项。

　　29. D考查形容词。asleep睡着的；afraid害怕的；awake醒着的；alive活着的

　　根据句意：如果他现在见不到妹妹，也许就再也见不到活着的她了。故选D项。

　　30. B考查动词。 promised允诺；recognized认出；treated对待；viewed看待。根据下文可知句意为:但是护士长认出了他是一个孩子。故选B项

　　31. A考查动词。allow同意，允许; ask要求; acquire获得; refuse拒绝。结合上下文可知句意为:重症护理室一般是不许小孩进去的,故选A项。

　　32. C考查副词。seldom很少地；rarely稀罕地；usually通常地；constantly不断地。根据句意：这位一向温文尔雅的女士狠狠地盯住护士长的脸。故选C项。

　　33. A考查连词。not……until直到……才。故选A项。

　　34. C考查动词。根据上文There is little hope,故选C项。

　　35. A考查介词。in在某个范围内; on在某个表面; at在一点; with用某种具体工具。结合下文可知句意为:在一个三岁孩子来自纯净心灵的歌声里，米歇尔唱到。选A项。

　　36. D考查动词。cried哭；laughed笑；answered回答；responded作出反应。结合下文可知句意为：马上这个小女孩有了反映，故选D项。

　　37. B考查名词。根据上文的歌词，应选B项sunshine.

　　38. A考查动词。根据上文as I lay sleeping,应选A项dreamed

　　39. D考查名词。根据下文，应选D项love.

　　40. C考查副词。simply简单地；strangely奇怪地；unbelievably难以置信地；easily容易地。根据句意：爱是如此难以相信的强大。故选C项

　　第二节语法填空：

　　【语篇导读】本文是现代科技类介绍说明文。你还在用QQ或MSN吗？你太out了吧。微信，一种新的生活方式，短短8个月的时间，成为了目前世界上最有影响力的信息交流平台。人们每天刷微博，刷微信，成了不折不扣的“微信控“，然而，微信带给人们便捷的同时也可能会面临一些危险。

　　41.考查连接词在复合句中的运用。根据逻辑意义，主从句构成“假如”的条件关系，故用If。

　　42.考查定语从句中主谓一致、时态和语态。关系词做主语时，谓语动词的性和数取决于前面的先行词，前面先行词是Wechat,第三人称单数，一般现在时，故用owns。

　　43.考查冠词。cheap way是可数名词单数，故用a。

　　44.考查连词。上下文缺少连接功能的词，同时充当从句中的主语，意为“发生的事”，故用what。

　　45.考查形容词的比较级。后面有提示词than，所以答案应为“easier...than...”

　　46.考查词组搭配。play a role/roles in……，故填in。

　　47.考查词性。so……that…….，中间应用形容词，appeal为动词，其形容词为appealing，“吸引人的”。

　　48.考查修饰名词的可数和不可数的搭配。A large number of修饰可数名词复数，被修饰名词people为可数名词，故填number。

　　49.考查代词。代替前面的名词mobile phone,且同一指代，特指，故填it。

　　50.考查非谓语动词。介词后面应用动名词，此处表示“被欺骗的危险”，故用被动being cheated。

　　第三部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

　　第一节短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）

　　Double 11 or November 11, named Singles Day in China, has become a shopping festival for

　　shopping lovers, specially for women and students, most of which click the mouse mildly. I am a

　　① especially ②whom

　　crazy shopper, too.

　　November 12 was memorable for me for I had a unusual experience that day. I slept until it was

　　③an

　　9:30 am because I have stayed up the night before. I got dressed hurriedly, grasped my schoolbag

　　④ had have

　　and left with having breakfast. I rode to school as fast as I could, hoped it would be soon to reach

　　⑤without ⑥hoping

　　the school. When I finally got to my school, I found that the door was locked. It was turned out that

　　⑦

　　our students were off that day. I needn’t ∧come to school. I couldn’t help bursting into laughters for my foolish

　　⑧we ⑨have ⑩laugher

　　behavior.

　　What a ridiculous day ! This experience will be unforgettable in my mind.

　　【解析】：

　　① specially→especially。考查形容词和副词。specially表示“专门”，“特意”，强调目的性和专门性。especially表示“尤其”，“特别”，强调程度。

　　② which→whom。考查关系词的使用。前面先行词指人，且most of加宾格，故用whom。

　　③ a→an。考查冠词，修饰unusual，是元音音素。

　　④ have→had或去掉have。考查时态。从下文the night before,可以看出应用过去完成时或一般过去时。

　　⑤ with→without。考查介词及逻辑意义。上下看出应是“没有吃早点”。

　　⑥ hoped→hoping。考查非谓语。上文已经有谓语rode，这儿只能用非谓语，做伴随状语，表主动。

　　⑦去掉was。考查语态，turn out没有被动语态形式。

　　⑧ our→we。考查人称代词。We students的身份是学生，our students是身份是老师，从上文grasped the schoolbag看出作者是学生.

　　⑨在needn’t和come之间插入have。needn’t have done意为“本不必做某事（而实际上做了）”。

　　⑩ laughters→laughter。抽象名词laughter为不可数名词，且构成固定搭配burst into laughter。

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